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The Complete Arcane feat Wandstrike states you can expend a charge of the wand to inflict damage, but also that "you can activate the wand as part of the attack." If you want to both inflict damage and get the wand's normal effect, does that drain two charges from the wand, or one?

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What's the feat Wandstrike (CAr 84) do for the character that a wand chamber (Du 34) (100 gp; 0 lbs.) doesn't? Seriously, 1d6 damage that requires an attack roll (albeit touch) and costs a charge from the wand? What's the character doing when that's a good feat? –  Hey I Can Chan Jan 7 at 14:34
    
And? The quality of the feat isn't relevant, only the ruling on it. Address the question actually asked. –  Lord_Gareth Jan 7 at 20:03

1 Answer 1

It spends two charges

Wandstrike doesn't affect the cost of activating a wand, and it expends charges at its normal rate when activated during the course of a Wandstrike. A good rule of thumb is that if a feat doesn't say explicitly that it changes a rule or cost, then it doesn't.

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I tend to agree with the conclusion, but the description of the feat is ambiguously worded. I think it can be read to indicate that activation of the wand is subsumed into the expenditure of the charge for damage. But from context I think the 1 charge for damage, plus one charge for activation of the normal effect is correct. –  Epiphanis Jan 6 at 17:09
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You could always quote the feat in your question, at which point I can break down the wording directly in my answer (I'm AFB at the moment, sadly). –  Lord_Gareth Jan 6 at 17:46

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