Timeline for Does a targeted creature still get a "save for half" against an overchanneled spell?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
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Aug 9, 2015 at 4:12 | vote | accept | PurpleVermont | ||
Aug 8, 2015 at 7:07 | comment | added | SevenSidedDie | That would be overthinking it. And making it kinda overpowered. | |
Aug 8, 2015 at 6:08 | comment | added | PurpleVermont | the spell says it deals "8d6 OR half on a successful save" which is consistent with how it is normally played. The question is, does the 8d6 get replaced with 8x6, or does the whole phrase explaining what gets dealt get replaced? I agree that what makes sense is that the 8d6 gets replaced by 8x6 and the saves act as normal. But I don't agree that as written, that is obvious. | |
Aug 8, 2015 at 5:20 | history | edited | SevenSidedDie | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Aug 8, 2015 at 5:14 | comment | added | SevenSidedDie | @PurpleVermont The words “deal”, “take”, “inflict” — whichever — mean the same thing they always do. By the logic you offer, a normal fireball that deals 8d6 damage would also bypass the saving throw, because “it says it deals 8d6 damage, not 8d6 ÷ 2 damage.” Clearly that makes no sense, so the logic is invalid and must be discarded in both cases. | |
Aug 8, 2015 at 5:05 | comment | added | PurpleVermont | Spells don't actually specify when the damage is "dealt" (before or after the save). They typically say that the creature "takes" X points of (some type of) damage, or half on a successful save. I would think damage isn't "dealt" until it is "taken". | |
Aug 8, 2015 at 4:10 | history | answered | SevenSidedDie | CC BY-SA 3.0 |