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Does the Target of a Spell Continue to be the Target?

Consider dominate person or polymorph.

A spell such as dominate person or polymorph is cast on a human. The human does not save. On the next round, is the human still considered the target of the spell?

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    \$\begingroup\$ To rephrase, Is a spell continuously checking if it's affecting a legal target and is a spell dispelled or suppressed if the spell's target has become illegal after the spell was cast? Is that accurate? \$\endgroup\$ – Hey I Can Chan Jun 1 '18 at 20:34
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    \$\begingroup\$ @HeyICanChan that seems to be the actual problem behind the question. Perhaps the question should be restated with this problem in mind \$\endgroup\$ – David Coffron Jun 1 '18 at 20:36
  • \$\begingroup\$ @HeyICanChan That's the follow up question. I decided they're separate issues. \$\endgroup\$ – GcL Jun 1 '18 at 20:38
  • \$\begingroup\$ I get the feeling there’s more behind this question than has been posted. Grosscol, what makes you wonder this? \$\endgroup\$ – SevenSidedDie Jun 1 '18 at 20:38
  • \$\begingroup\$ (Y'know, were Magic: The Gathering never to've existed, I doubt anyone would consider concepts like continuous targeting and it goes on the stack. You never hear someone playing Monopoly say, "O, I rolled a 6? In response, I sell Boardwalk!") \$\endgroup\$ – Hey I Can Chan Jun 1 '18 at 20:42
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Yes

Otherwise certain aspects of the spell would be meaningless:

You can use your action to take total control of the target.

This explicitly refers to the humanoid affected by the spell as "target." If the creature ceased to be the target after the spell was cast, this ability would cease to function.

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