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This may sound like a basic question, but I'd like to be 100% sure.

In D&D 5e, Subtle Spell's description in the sorcerer class description says

When you cast a spell, you can spend 1 sorcery point to cast it without any somatic or verbal components

The way the sentence is formulated, I kind of understand it in two different ways:

  1. You can ignore both Somatic and Verbal components when you cast a subtle spell.
  2. Choose between the Somatic and Verbal component; you can ignore that component when you cast a spell.

Which one of those understandings is the correct one?

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The Metamagic ignores Both Verbal and Somatic components; the Sorcerer is not required to choose

The phrasing "without any somatic or verbal components" is, in plain English, interpreted to mean both are no longer needed.

If the intent of this metamagic were to force a choice of which component the Sorcerer were to ignore, then it ought to have been phrased in one of the following ways:

Subtle Spell. When you cast a spell, you can spend 1 sorcery point to choose either one of the Verbal or Somatic Components. Whichever components you choose, you do not need to provide those components for this spell.
Stated as clearly as possible.


Subtle Spell. When you cast a spell, you can spend 1 sorcery point to cast it without either the somatic components, or the verbal components.
Keeping the general phrasing, but with the comma doing heavy lifting.


Subtle Spell. When you cast a spell, you can spend 1 sorcery point to cast it without the Verbal Components. Alternatively, you may instead cast the spell without the Somatic Components.
Calls more attention to the choice itself.


Silent Spell. When you cast a spell, you can spend 1 sorcery point to cast it without the Verbal Components
Still Spell. When you cast a spell, you can spend 1 sorcery point to cast it without the Somatic Components
Splits them into different metamagics; would make it harder to gain additional metamagics though.

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