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There's been a debate on a D&D discord server that's caused me a lot of trouble. Here is the question: if a wizard 2/cleric 2 has a wizard spell prepared from being a cleric, rather than from being a wizard, then should the wizard-cleric not be able to then scribe that spell into their spellbook the same as if they had it prepared from anywhere else?

Edit: This is different to the bard/wizard question due to bards having spells known, and clerics preparing spells just as wizards do.

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    \$\begingroup\$ @KorvinStarmast I mean I was going to propose this one but it's closed as a dupe of the one I linked before \$\endgroup\$ – Sdjz Oct 24 at 16:12
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    \$\begingroup\$ Please note that the three answers at the dupe take a slightly different approach, and that the difference in votes isn't all that much; you are not bound to accept the accepted answer, but it may be, to you, the one that makes the most sense. \$\endgroup\$ – KorvinStarmast Oct 24 at 16:28

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