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Let's say I have a monster with DR 10/Adamantine.

Would it be correct to say that if a PC attacks that monster with a +3 non-Adamantine weapon, the monster's DR would not be overcome?

The general question here is whether magical weapons automatically overcome damage reduction. My read is that magical weapons can overcome DR, but it's not guaranteed. Is that correct?

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    \$\begingroup\$ This isn't quite a duplicate, but I'd suggest looking at rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/13547/… for more about DR in Pathfinder. \$\endgroup\$ – DuckTapeAl Mar 18 '14 at 10:49
  • \$\begingroup\$ I did see that question but I wanted to verify this particular scenario. \$\endgroup\$ – Craig Mar 18 '14 at 16:02
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Correct on both counts. See the PFSRD.

  • +1 and greater weapons overcome DR that is vulnerable to magic
  • +3 and greater weapons overcome DR as if made from cold iron and/or silver
  • +4 and greater weapons overcome DR as if made from adamantine
  • +5 weapons overcome DR as if aligned

Thus, a +3 weapon over comes DR that is vulnerable to magic, cold iron, or silver, but not adamantine (unless it was actually made from adamantine). It would need +4 to overcome DR/adamantine without being adamantine.

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    \$\begingroup\$ It's worth noting that no amount of bonus will allow a magic weapon to overcome damage reduction as if it dealt a different damage type; If a creature has DR 10/bludgeoning, for example, a +5 dagger is still not going to do more damage striking with the pommel as an improvised weapon than if used as the maker intended. \$\endgroup\$ – GMJoe Jul 10 '14 at 7:26

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