47
\$\begingroup\$

In D&D3e, if you successfully hit a target you always did at least 1 point of damage (before applying Damage Resistance), even if you had a Strength penalty. I can't find any mention of that rule in the 5e PHB. Does the rule no longer apply, or did I just overlook it?

\$\endgroup\$
53
\$\begingroup\$

It is correct to say the 3.5e rule no longer appears in 5e. Another tweet (god I wish we had that back in the 90s) clarifies that the minimum is indeed 0.

JeremyCrawford
@JeremyECrawford
There is not a damage minimum of 1, so it is possible to deal 0 damage with an attack.

Jack Abrasion
@jackAbrasion
@JeremyECrawford Do attacks do a minimum 1 point of damage, or would an unarmed strike from a goblin (STR -1) do 0 damage?

8:56 AM - 11 Jun 2015

\$\endgroup\$
  • 5
    \$\begingroup\$ JC tweets are no longer official rules - I provided a properly sourced answer, but if you change yours in a timely manner I'll just delete mine, so the proper source is easy to access. \$\endgroup\$ – Akixkisu Dec 10 '20 at 11:39
14
\$\begingroup\$

There is no such rule in 5e.

An unarmed strike by someone (other than a monk or tavern brawler) with less than 10 strength will never do any damage, (even on a crit), for example.

\$\endgroup\$
11
\$\begingroup\$

There is no damage minimum rule, on the contrary sources of damage can deal 0 damage.

SAC V 2.6 P 13. says:

Can damage be reduced to 0 by resistance or another form of damage reduction? There is no damage minimum in the rules, so it is possible to deal 0 damage with an attack, a spell, or another effect.

\$\endgroup\$
3
\$\begingroup\$

According to the Basic Rules, it is possible to deal 0 damage (but never less):

With a penalty, it is possible to deal 0 damage, but never negative damage.

\$\endgroup\$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.