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The Dueling fighting style is defined as following (PHB p 72):

"When you are wielding a melee weapon in one hand and no other weapons, you gain a +2 bonus to damage rolls with that weapon"

Can I assume this means we do not get the +2 bonus when wielding two-handed weapons such as a pike, glaive or halberd?

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Being possessed of the Dueling fighting style doesn't preclude the use of a two-handed weapon. You can still use a two-handed weapon as you normally would.

However, when you do so you do not gain the bonus provided by Dueling as you no longer meet the prerequisite. I.e. as the weapon "requires two hands to use" (Weapon Properties, pp.146-147, at "Two-Handed") neither hand can singly be said to be wielding the weapon as the style would require.

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Can I assume this means we do not get the +2 bonus when wielding two-handed weapons such as a pike, glaive or halberd?

Correct, because the character is now holding a melee weapon with two hands (ergo, in two hands). The character doesn't get a pass on this just because there is only one weapon entity. This is different from wielding a sword in one hand and a shield in another because only one of those counts as a weapon.

This also means that when they use the versatile feature of a battleaxe (changing a d8 to a d10), they lose the benefits of the dueling style because they're now gripping the weapon with two hands.

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Much of the discussion here depends if you interpret "in one hand" as meaning 'in at least one hand' or 'in only one hand.'

Without clarification I would assume the charitable interpretation of 'in at least one hand' meaning that two handed weapons would get the +2 damage modifier. Just like weapon and shield, and one-handed weapon and empty hand (or rose, bottle, book in other hand).

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    \$\begingroup\$ Welcome to the site! Please take the tour when you get the chance. Can you explain why you would assume that interpretation? \$\endgroup\$
    – Oblivious Sage
    Feb 2, 2019 at 2:45
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    \$\begingroup\$ You can't wield a weapon with no hands (generally speaking), so if they meant it the way you interpret it, there'd be no need to mention hands at all. Seems like a solid argument against your interpretation to me. \$\endgroup\$
    – V2Blast
    Feb 2, 2019 at 2:48

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