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It seems to be that if a spell is a 4th-level X (wizard/sorcercer/etc) spell it is also a 4th-level Y (bard/warlock/etc) spell (provided both classes have it). Is that true?

Are cantrips always cantrips independent of class? Is every 1st level level, always a 1st-level?

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Yes

You'll notice in the player's handbook that spells (and their level) are listed without any reference to the classes that can use them. The spell lists for each class are separate. Spell level is independent of the class using it in 5e.

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    \$\begingroup\$ Do you think that the Warlock's unique spell/level feature is worth adding to this? The change in spell level as cast with Warlock level may or may not need a cross reference to p. 78 basic rules on "Casting a Spell at a Higher Level." \$\endgroup\$ – KorvinStarmast Mar 23 '16 at 19:22
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    \$\begingroup\$ @KorvinStarmast I do not. The Warlock feature is simply that all warlock spell slots are of the same level. The level of a spell is separate from the level of spell slot used to cast it and I consider all of that to be a separate question. Man oh man do I wish there was better terminology for this though. \$\endgroup\$ – Ceribia Mar 23 '16 at 19:42
  • \$\begingroup\$ good point, and "scope creep" may not help the answer in any case. \$\endgroup\$ – KorvinStarmast Mar 23 '16 at 19:59

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