In Pathfinder, there is the spell Spherescry that requires you to use a part of yourself as a catalyst ingredient for the sensor (at least a digit). So, If the spellcaster prepared a Clone beforehand, can they use body parts from that clone to create the sensors?

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    \$\begingroup\$ Seriously, how do the spell's onyx spheres consume body parts? It's not like an onyx sphere can take an action to eat a finger or whatever. \$\endgroup\$ Commented May 6, 2016 at 16:35
  • \$\begingroup\$ Hey, I noticed that you accepted my answer! While I'm glad I was able to help you, it's usually a good idea to wait a day or two to give other answers a chance to crop up. If someone else answers and you decide their answer fits better, you'll still be able to switch your Accepted Answer, so feel free to do so! \$\endgroup\$
    – lithas
    Commented May 6, 2016 at 19:59
  • \$\begingroup\$ Spherescry has a duration of 1 minute/level, but a casting time of 1 hour. And it costs you a body part. I'm assuming that the body part is a one-time cost, and each casting re-uses that same part rather than requiring another (unless you make another sphere). What about the casting time vs duration? \$\endgroup\$
    – Marsh
    Commented May 6, 2016 at 20:41
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    \$\begingroup\$ An alternative approach to using the 8th-level Clone spell is to just use your own digits and then pay a cleric 910 GP to cast Regenerate on you. \$\endgroup\$ Commented May 6, 2016 at 21:22

1 Answer 1


No, unless you're inhabiting the clone already

Spherescry specifies:

This spell allows remote viewing through spheres that have previously consumed some portion of the spellcaster's body: a single digit of a finger or toe at a minimum

Being very clear that the spellcaster must be the one to offer up their body to activate the sphere. On its own, this isn't enough to rule out Clone's interaction with the spell, so we turn to Clone to see how the body is treated by the rules. At the end of the description we have:

A duplicate can be grown while the original still lives, or when the original soul is unavailable, but the resulting body is merely a soulless bit of inert flesh which rots if not preserved.

This is pretty clear to me: the body is inert, soulless, and has never actually been occupied by the spellcaster's soul. Because of the existence of souls, and the ability to raise people from the dead (in some cases even without a body a la True Ressurection), it's pretty clear that the soul is what acts as a sort of true identity in Pathfinder. The Clone body can't be considered to be the body of the spellcaster unless the spellcaster's soul resides in that body.

It's a little unclear to me what would happen if the caster were to inhabit the clone, and then attempt to feed bits of his old body to the spell. I would argue that he would have little problem. Take for example the case where I am a normal caster, with one body. I cut off a finger, feed it to Spherescry, and the spell activates as normal. Clearly the finger doesn't contain my soul, but it used to. I would argue that a corpse that you no longer inhabit (because of death) would qualify in the same way.

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    \$\begingroup\$ I agree with this answer, but might add that soul-moving shenanigans are probably workable here, especially possessing or otherwise moving your soul into the Clone while keeping your original body alive, sacrificing Clone parts, then moving back. (Also, possessing someone else and using their parts, if you're evil or skirting that thin neutral line.) \$\endgroup\$ Commented May 6, 2016 at 15:42
  • \$\begingroup\$ Oh, yeah. I wasn't thinking about other ways of moving souls about to make it qualify. Do you know if spellcasting counts as a Mental Ability for the purposes of Possession? \$\endgroup\$
    – lithas
    Commented May 6, 2016 at 15:45
  • \$\begingroup\$ @gatherer818 Actually, on closer inspection Possession wouldn't work, because the Clone isn't a creature any more than a normal corpse is. I'm sure there's a spell to let you inhabit a corpse, though \$\endgroup\$
    – lithas
    Commented May 6, 2016 at 15:46
  • \$\begingroup\$ How would that work for an incorporeal creature, then? \$\endgroup\$
    – JAB
    Commented May 6, 2016 at 19:10
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    \$\begingroup\$ Just to throw fuel on the fire: The spell requires the spheres to have consumed a part of the spellcaster's body. If the spellcaster buys a body (perhaps from a graverobber), can he then use parts of it for this spell? It is technically his body at that point, even if he's never inhabited it. \$\endgroup\$
    – GMJoe
    Commented May 9, 2016 at 0:44

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