Rules for "multiplication" in D&D and Pathfinder are unusual.
This is what Pathfinder rules say about multiplication:
When you are asked to apply more than one multiplier to a roll, the multipliers are not multiplied by one another. Instead, you combine them into a single multiplier, with each extra multiple adding 1 less than its value to the first multiple.
...and this is what D&D 3.5e rules say:
When two or more multipliers apply to any abstract value (such as a modifier or a die roll), however, combine them into a single multiple, with each extra multiple adding 1 less than its value to the first multiple.
I know the D&D rule for multiplication does not apply to real-world values, only to abstract ones, and I have no idea if the problem I'm describing here ever happens in D&D. This is not true for Pathfinder, where the provided rules are true for every out-of-game, rule-induced multiplication, and the problem arises (see below).
So if you double \$A\$, then triple it, you get \$A \times \left[2+\left(3-1\right)\right] = 4A\$ instead of the expected \$6A\$ that a true multiplication would give us.
How does this work when dividing?
(e.g. when halving creation times because of two different features or feats in Pathfinder. I'm not sure halving twice ever applies to abstract values in D&D.)
Do I just divide like in the real world, since this rule is only valid for multipliers?
$$ A \times \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{2} = A \times \frac{1}{4} $$
Do I apply the multiply rules, since division is just multiplication with fractions?
$$ A \times \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{2} = A \times \left[ \frac{1}{2} + \left( \frac{1}{2} - 1 \right) \right] = A \times 0 $$
I guess not. As you can see the formula breaks for any second or later multiplier that is 1 or lower (which should not happen, with numbers > 1 the formula works equally well whatever the order of the multipliers).
Do I find the inverse of the operation, so that when I multiply the values back it gives me the explected value??
$$ A \times \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{2} = A \times \frac{1}{2 + \left(2 - 1\right)} = A \times \frac{1}{3} = B $$
$$ \text{so that } B \times 2 \times 2 = \left(A \times \frac{1}{3}\right) \times \left[2 + \left(2 - 1\right)\right] = A $$
I don't really expect the authors to have thought about this, but who knows?
Maybe you know.
...or at least I'm hoping so.