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The rules about Warlock Thought Shield say this:

You also have resistance to psychic damage, and whenever a creature deals psychic damage to you, that creature takes the same amount of damage that you do.

My two questions are:

  1. If a creature does 40 points of psychic damage to a warlock, then is it the case that 20 points of damage is done to the warlock, and 20 points of damage is done to the creature? If the damage is reduced somehow to the warlock, is that damage dealt to the creature also reduced?

  2. Is the damage done back to the creature considered untyped or psychic? If the creature is immune to psychic damage, does the creature take any damage?

I have a preference for official rulings with citation.

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You also have resistance to psychic damage, and whenever a creature deals psychic damage to you, that creature takes the same amount of damage that you do.

Both of your questions are answered in this quote.

  1. If a creature rolls for 40 points of psychic damage to a warlock who is using Thought Shield, the Warlock takes 20 points of psychic damage due to the resistance to psychic damage. The creature then takes 20 points of psychic damage (the same that you took).

  2. The damage is still psychic damage. If they are immune to psychic damage, they take no damage (but you still do). If they are instead resistant to psychic damage, the damage done to them will be further reduced -- using the above example of 40 damage on the roll, they would take 10.

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  • \$\begingroup\$ His question would also cover the case of if the user could somehow reduce the psychic damage again. Would the enemy take that doubly reduced damage? \$\endgroup\$
    – Levi
    Nov 1, 2016 at 16:54
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    \$\begingroup\$ @Levi Based on “the same amount of damage you do”, it seems that they would inherit all of your resistances on top of their own. \$\endgroup\$
    – Nate Diamond
    Nov 1, 2016 at 17:06
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    \$\begingroup\$ @Levi -- the first part makes sense. However, it says "the creature takes the same amount of damage that you do." One could argue that if it were psychic damage, it would say, "the creature takes the same amount and type of damage that you do." \$\endgroup\$
    – bryanjonker
    Nov 1, 2016 at 18:05
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    \$\begingroup\$ @bryanjonker: I don't think there is untyped damage in 5E. Given the lack of any other type information in the description and nature of the defence I think it is reasonable to assume psychic. \$\endgroup\$
    – Neil Slater
    Nov 1, 2016 at 20:54
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They are dealt the same damage and type that you were dealt.

Because there is no errata I can only prove this by disproving the other arguments.

  1. After applying resistances you take an amount of damage to your HP's and the creature takes the same amount of damage to it's HP's. The problem with this is that this assumes that the damage being dealt back to the creature has no type. The PHB states:

    Different attacks, damaging spells, and other harmful effects deal different types of damage.

  2. When you take psychic damage the damage you take after applying resistances is then applied to the creature including the type. You are dealt 40 psychic damage after resistance you take 20 psychic damage the creature then takes 20 psychic damage reduced by resistance/immunity. The problem with this interpretation is that they neither take the same damage after resistances nor are dealt the same damage as you before resistances which the ability specifically states.

    that creature takes the same amount of damage that you do

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