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My character is immune to a specific type of damage, and an opponent attacks him with that type of damage. I know my character will not be getting any damage from that attack.
My opponent successfully lands his attack (his controller succeeded his attack roll). But for reaction purposes, does he hit my character?
Per page 194 of the PH (bold added for emphasis):
When you make an attack, your attack roll determines whether the attack hits or misses. To make an attack roll, roll a d20 and add the appropriate modifiers. lf the total of the roll plus modifiers equals or exceeds the target's Armor Class (AC),the attack hits.
Regardless of the damage done (or not, in this case) a successful attack roll is indeed a hit.
If the total of the [attack] roll plus modifiers equals or exceeds the target's Armor Class (AC), the attack hits. (PHB p.194, emphasis mine)
That's all you need to hit: nothing mentioned about damage.
The (excellent) question was raised: is it possible that immunity actually prevents the hit? Looking for a definition, today I learned that none of the PHB, MM, or DMG actually define immunity--it's just used in a plain-language sense.
That said, your scenario mentioned "immunity to damage" of a certain type. You're not immune to the attack, you're not immune to all effects, just to one particular effect: the damage. All else triggered on a hit--like your reaction or a lycanthrope's curse--is still viable.
