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As discussed here, a negative modifier should always be applied to a damage roll. However, it is suggested in the answer that the minimum damage should be 1.

I'd like to know if there's an official rule (or a tweet for a game developer) that can back this up?

Specifically, I'm trying to evaluate the consequences of disarming weak creatures. Would a disarmed kobold with a -2 STR modifier do 1 (1-2; minimum 1) or 0 damage (1-2; minimum 0) with an unarmed strike?

On a hit, an unarmed strike deals bludgeoning damage equal to 1 + your Strength modifier. (PHB, p. 195)

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  • \$\begingroup\$ also related: Do lycanthropes need to do damage.... In fact, I think that one answers your question. But it's not from a dev, just from a user. (Me!) \$\endgroup\$ – nitsua60 Jun 27 '16 at 16:49
  • \$\begingroup\$ I could have sworn I had researched the keywords "[dnd-5e] minimum damage" before posting this. My bad. \$\endgroup\$ – Meta4ic Jun 27 '16 at 18:13
  • \$\begingroup\$ It took me a while to find it, too. That's alright--closed-as-duplicate questions perform a valuable service to the site in serving as signposts. Nothing to apologize for! \$\endgroup\$ – nitsua60 Jun 27 '16 at 18:15

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