I'm designing a boss fight for the first session of my next campaign. The boss in question is a mounted warrior; one of his abilities is from the Mounted Combatant feat (PHB, p. 168), which allows him to force an attack or spell made against his mount to target him instead.
One of my players' characters is a Paladin/Sorcerer, and his main form of attack according to him will be casting booming blade.
The description of the booming blade cantrip (SCAG, p. 142) says:
As part of the action used to cast this spell, you must make a melee attack with a weapon against one creature within the spell’s range, otherwise the spell fails. On a hit, the target suffers the attack’s normal effects, and it becomes sheathed in booming energy until the start of your next turn. If the target willingly moves before then, it immediately takes 1d8 thunder damage, and the spell ends.
Jeremy Crawford has unofficially clarified on Twitter that "When booming blade refers to moving, it means movement in the game's normal sense: moving X feet."
The mounted warrior will be directly controlling the mount:
The initiative of a controlled mount changes to match yours when you mount it. It moves as you direct it, and it has only three action options: Dash, Disengage, and Dodge. A controlled mount can move and act even on the turn that you mount it.
So, RAW, it seems that if the mounted warrior is the target of booming blade and the attack hits, he will take the weapon damage (and at higher levels the additional thunder damage) - but he can freely direct his mount to move and carry him around the battlefield as normal, as he himself is not spending any movement, and therefore will not trigger the additional damage. This could be circumvented by targeting the mount, but in this case the mounted warrior is able to redirect attacks and spells onto himself as per the Mounted Combatant feat.
Am I interpreting this correctly, RAW?